Thursday, August 6, 2009
A reader asks, in response to some recent MOJ posts about health care, its status as a right, and the regulation of abortion:
Pro-life apologists for Obama are now arguing that there is a right to healthcare which entails a concrete response from the government to intervene and directly provide an outcome (namely, access to healthcare). Those conservatives who argue that market-based efforts to shape conduct and create incentives for broader coverage and access are [seen as] misguided or worse.
But, [they contend], it's perfectly fine for the right-to-life to be vindicated through market-based, demand-side management of incentives for killing. In that context, justice does not require the government to step in directly to impose an outcome (namely, the protection of innocents from private violence).
Do I have that right?